|477) A 39-year-old woman presents to clinic with a history of long-standing right leg pain. She complains of “achy” pain at the hip radiating down her femur to the knee, which is exacerbated on exertion, especially with jogging more so than climbing stairs, but also present during rest. She takes acetaminophen for it, which helps her pain. Her past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus diagnosed at age of 20, for which she has been taking on and off oral prednisone. She does not smoke cigarettes but he drinks alcohol 2 or 3 times per week. She denies any drug use. Physical examination is significant for limited range of motion of the right hip, especially with external rotation. A plain x-ray shows a dulling of the femoral head but no other pathology. What is the next step in diagnosis?|
|A. Bone scan|
|B. CT scan|
|C. MRI scan|
|D. PET scan|
476. You are evaluating a 12 month old male patient for rhinorrhea and poor appetite. He is friendly and alert. His temperature today is 103.6 degrees Fahrenheit, and his examination is significant for clear nasal discharge and multiple small vesicles on the anterior tonsillar pillars and posterior palate. His examination is otherwise normal. He is accompanied by his mother who seems to be very concerned. The patient has been feeding well and all his developmental milestones have been timely so far. A complete blood count is normal. Which of the following is his most likely diagnosis?
A. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
B. Apthous stomatitis
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
E. Kawasaki disease
A 2-week-old infant is brought to the office for a regular postnatal follow-up. She was born after an uneventful term pregnancy to a 29-year-old G2P2 woman. Mother reports that the infant is feeding well and seems active. No evidence of any fever. The parents are worried about the ‘rash’ that appeared over the infant’s left cheek. On examination, a lesion is noted on the infant’s left cheek as shown below. Vital signs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this finding?
|A||Surgical excision of the entire lesion|
|B||Biopsy of the lesion|
|C||Laser removal of the lesion|
|D||Reassurance and observation|
Filed under: USMLE STEP III QUESTION BANK, USMLE Test Prep | Tagged: archer dermatology, archer pediatrics, dermatology usmle, dermatology usmle step 3 questions, USMLE STEP 3 DERMATOLOGY, usmle step 3 dermatology images, usmle step 3 pediatrics | 9 Comments »
474. A cohort study is done concerning the relationship between exposure to oral contraception and the risk of breast cancer. 1000 women were followed from 2003 to 2007. Results are listed below:
|Breast Cancer +||Breast Cancer –|
|Oral contraceptive +||300 (a)||200 (b)||a + b = 500
Probability of breast cancer among exposed: 300/500 = 0.6
|Oral Contraceptive –||100 ©||400 (d)||c + d = 500
Probability of breast cancer among those not exposed = 100/500 = 0.2
|a + c = 400||b + d = 600|
Which of the following represents the absolute risk reduction of breast cancer in women who do not use oral contraceptives?
- You are reading a study that was conducted to evaluate IQ (intelligence quotient) scores for patients with bipolar disease. Ten patients did not complete the test. Two patients refused to begin the test. Results for the 94 patients who completed the test revealed an average IQ of 130 with a standard deviation of 20. Which of the following best represents the 95% confidence interval for this study?
|A 9-year-old boy is brought to the hospital with a wound to his left hand. He was in a fight with peer who bit him. His past medical history is unremarkable and he takes no medications. He has no known allergies. On examination, the child is crying. There is a 2-cm wound over the dorsum of his palm. What is the most appropriate course of action?|
|A. Clean the wound and prescribe amoxicillin-clavulanate.|
|B. Clean the wound and prescribe doxycycline.|
|C. Clean the wound and prescribe ciprofloxacin.|
|D. Clean the wound, close it with interrupted sutures and prescribe ciprofloxacin.|
|E. Clean the wound, close it with interrupted sutures and prescribe amoxicillin-clavulanate.|
A 14-year-old girl with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with 2-day history of feeling ‘feverish’, malaise, lower abdominal pain and non-bloody diarrhea. She has about 10 episodes of diarrhea daily. She has had three similar episodes in the past 7 years. She denies any recent travel or sick contacts, rush, cough or other symptoms of infection. She has no known allergies and does not take any medications currently. She has been taking 5-ASA, but stopped 6 months ago as she had been asymptomatic for 10 months before that. On presentation, the patient is afebrile with a body temperature of 101.0 F and appears ill. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and heart rate of 90 beats/minute. Abdominal examination is remarkable for abdominal tenderness in the lower abdomen, but no rebound or guarding. A subsequent CT scan shows dilatation of the left colonic lumen, as well as a thickened colon wall with pericolic fat stranding, particularly in the left colon. The admitting team determines the patient’s presentation is due to exacerbation of her disease. The patient is started on 5-ASA, metronidazole and prednisone and her condition improves within 10 days when she is symptom-free. What is the most appropriate plan after her symptoms have resolved?
|A) Continue 5-ASA, taper prednisone and discontinue metronidazole|
|B) Continue 5-ASA and prednisone, discontinue metronidazole|
|C) Discontinue ASA-5 and metronidazole and continue prednisone for 4 weeks, followed by taper|
|D) Recommend therapy with infliximab an instruct to take 5-ASA when she starts experiencing symptoms, discontinue prednisone and metronidazole|
|E) Continue 5-ASA and metronidazole for at least 4 weeks, taper prednisone|