Question of the Week # 429

429) A 72-year-old man presents for an out patient follow up after being discharged from the hospital two days ago. He was admitted for a transient ischemic attack on the right side of his body which resolved spontaneously. He was worked up and subsequently discharged. Review of his in-patient investigations reveal a carotid doppler which revealed 100% stenosis of the left carotid artery and a 40% stenosis of the right carotid artery. He smoked about 1 pack per day for past several years. His past medical history includes chronic atrial fibrillation for which he has been on Aspirin alone. During the last admission, he was started on Coumadin as well. Today, his INR is therapeutic at 2.5 . His fasting lipid profile shows a calculated LDL cholesterol of 60mg%.  On examination, there are no neurological deficits. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. In addition to recommending smoking cessation and lifestyle changes along with continuation of coumadin, which of the following is most appropriate at this time?

A) Carotid Endarterectomy of Right Carotid Artery

B) Carotid Stenting of left carotid artery

C)  Carotid Endarterectomy of Left Carotid Artery

D) Carotid Magnetic Resonance Angiography

E) No other intervention indicated

Question of the Week # 428

428) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match.  He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. If untreated, which of the following would be most likely course of this injury?

A) Spontaneous Resolution

B) Hearing Deficit

C) Permanent ear disfigurement

D) Otitis Externa

E) Mastoiditis

Question of the Week # 427

427) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match.  He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A) Compressive dressing

B) Needle aspiration of the Hematoma

C) Cold compresses, analgesics and antibiotics

D) Incision and Drainage

E) Observe and await  spontaneous hematoma resolution

Question of the Week # 426

426) A 70-year-old man with history of atrial fibrillation and metallic mitral valve presents to the out patient clinic for follow up. He has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR has been in therapeutic range between 3.0 to 4.0. However, over the last one month his INR has been in the range of  1.5 to 2.0 . His other medical problems include moderate osteoarthritis and mild cognitive dysfunction. He started taking Glucosamine supplements for “preserving his joints “and Ginseng to slow “ageing of his brain”  about two months ago. He has also been started on Aspirin by his cardiologist about 1 month ago. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. A repeat INR is still sub-therapeutic at 1.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A) Increase Warfarin dose by 20%

B) Stop Glucosamine and repeat INR in 1 week

C) Continue Warfarin at same dose and repeat INR in 1 week

D) Stop Ginseng and repeat INR in 1 week

E) Stop Aspirin, increase Warfarin dose and repeat INR in 1 week

Question of the Week # 425

425) A 80 day old african american woman with advanced dementia is admitted to the intensive care unit for overwhelming sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. At presentation she was hypoxemic and was subsequently, intubated and placed on a ventilator. Blood and urine cultures are obtained and she is started on antibiotics A chest x-ray post-intubation shows endotracheal tube in place and bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates. On examination, his pulse is 110/min, Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and respiratory rate is 18/min with the patient on Assist-Control mode on the ventilator. Pulse oximetry reveals 88% on Fio2 90%. Chest examination reveals diffuse crackles. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia, there is no S3 gallop. Brain natriuretic peptide level is 50 pg/ml . A 2D echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 60%. His ventilator settings are as follows : Assist-Control mode; Fio2 ( Fraction of inspired oxygen) : 90%, Respiratory rate : 18/minute, Tidal Volume : 500 ml, PEEP ( Positive End expiatory Pressure) : 5 cm H20 . Arterial blood gas analysis reveals ( on Fio2 70%): pH : 7.36, pCo2 : 45 mmHg, pO2 : 55 mm Hg, Bicarbonate : 23 Meq/L

Which of the following is indicated at this time?

A) Intravenous Furosemide

B) Swan-Ganz Catheter Placement

C) Increase PEEP by 3 cm H20

D) Increase Tidal Volume to 650 ml

E) Increase Fio2 to 100%

Question of the Week # 424

424) A 3 day old male infant is evaluated for a rash that developed previous night and has been progressing. The rash first started on his face as flat red patches but now it has become bumpy and some of them have pus in it. The baby is breast feeding and there is no history of fever. The mother is healthy and none of the family members are sick at home. The baby was born by an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. On examination, he is afebrile. There are numerous small flat red patches along with yellowish-white papules and numerous pustules all over his trunk and extremities. The lesions on his face seem to be resolving. Palms and soles are not involved. A Wright-stained smear of pustular fluid shows numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils. A picture of the rash is shown below:

 

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Miliaria

B) Eosinophilic Pustular Folliculitis

C) Erythema Toxicum

D) Milia

E) Staphylococcal Pyoderma

Question of the Week # 424

424)  A 30 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of  right lower extremity swelling and pain over the past two days. He has had recurrent diarrhea with loose, watery bowel movements for several weeks without any blood in it. He also reports developing a red, scaly rash around his nose, mouth , genital area and on the buttocks.  He has itching and pain in the areas affected by the rash. He denies any fever or night sweats or weightloss.  He does not drink alcohol. He is sexually active with his girl friend and always uses condoms. On examination, his vitals are stable. Cardiac and respiratory examination is normal. There is  angular cheilitis.  Laboratory investigations reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia. Stool analysis does not show any leucocytes or blood and is negative for ova and parasites. Venous doppler reveals right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis extending up to common femoral vein. Skin examination shows findings as below:

 

In addition to starting anticoagulation, which of the following should be performed next?

A) Serum Zinc Level

B) CT scan of the abdomen

C) Protein C and S levels

D) Serum Glucagon Levels

E) Factor V leiden mutation

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